spoilt_brat05
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Thank you... for replying... your answers are appreciated... I need this for my legal research... for active participation... Its not part of my Assignment... Anyway thanks to those who helped me...
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In your opinon, should the elected parliament be the sole law-makers in Australia? Why should the elected parliament be the sole law-makers in Australia? Should other bodies such as the executive (government) and the judicial body (courts) make laws? If yes, why should these bodies make laws that against the theory of separation of powers popularised by Montesquieu 1748?
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In your opinon, should the elected parliament be the sole law-makers in Australia? Why should the elected parliament be the sole law-makers in Australia? Should other bodies such as the executive (government) and the judicial body (courts) make laws? If yes, why should these bodies make laws that against the theory of separation of powers popularised by Montesquieu 1748?
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In your opinon, should the elected parliament be the sole law-makers in Australia? Why should the elected parliament be the sole law-makers in Australia? Should other bodies such as the executive (government) and the judicial body (courts) make laws? If yes, why should these bodies make laws that against the theory of separation of powers popularised by Montesquieu 1748?
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ermm, nope... but i need others opinion about this research... its part of my assignment... i hope u can give ur opinions on this... thanks...
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In your opinon, should the elected parliament be the sole law-makers in Australia? Why should the elected parliament be the sole law-makers in Australia? Should other bodies such as the executive (government) and the judicial body (courts) make laws? If yes, why should these bodies make laws that against the theory of separation of powers popularised by Montesquieu 1748?
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In your opinon, should the elected parliament be the sole law-makers in Australia? Why should the elected parliament be the sole law-makers in Australia? Should other bodies such as the executive (government) and the judicial body (courts) make laws? If yes, why should these bodies make laws that against the theory of separation of powers popularised by Montesquieu 1748?