Ok, i have just finished some testing with my 2ohm internal resistant 2 channel mtx amp. I used a 4ohm speaker and 2ohm speaker for this test.
Test 1. Amp internal resistance = 2ohm. It saw this on both single channels. I then Bridged the channels and i still saw a 2 ohm load. I then tested the ohmage of the 4 ohm speaker and got 4 ohms. I then tested the 2 ohm speaker and got 2 ohms.
Test 2. running 4ohm speaker in both single and bridged mode.
I saw a 4 ohm load on the single channel with 25ampers being provided. Switched speaker to second channel and still saw a 4ohm load with 27ampers being provided.
-Now, 4ohm bridged.
This still saw a 4ohm load across the bridged channels, but, i now had 55ampers.
Test3. I now used the 2ohm speakers for the test.
First i ran the 2ohm speaker in single channel setup. I saw a load of 2ohm with 52ampers being provided. I did this for the second channel and saw still 2ohm and 55ampers being provided.
-Now, i used the 2ohm speaker in bridged mode. I saw a 2ohm load on the amp, and a 120ampers being provided.
Test4. I finished by checking the ohmage of the channels on the amp, 1st 2ohm, 2nd 2ohm. Then checked the ohm of bridged, 2ohm. Then i rechecked the 4 ohm speaker and got 4ohm. then i checked the 2 ohm speker and got 2ohm.
Is an amp providing an output ohmage? I dont understand how by bridging two channels together will drop from 4ohm to 2ohm. Fair enough they have an internal resistance, but it did not effect my results. I was led to believe that an amp wasnt providing an output ohmage, why add an external load that had any ohmage rating if it was? You can run any speaker off an amp, and depending on its internal resistance(ohms) depended on how efficient the amp could run. If you bridge two channels, you are doubling the current (ampers), but not halving the load(ohm's) the amp see's, mono or not.